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Brainteasers

May 20, 2004

Brainteasers
Interactive Quiz #81:
Know Your Limits

The freedom of flight is only limited by your imagination and a few thousand federal regulations. Let's navigate down to the regulatory minimums without slipping too many surly FAR bonds.


INSTRUCTIONS: Answer the questions as best you can, then click on the "Score my quiz answers" button to see your score and read the explanations. If you don't like your score the first time around, you can change some of your answers and resubmit. To get the most out of this quiz, we suggest you keep trying until you get a perfect score.

NOTE: When more than one answer is true, only the most complete, correct answer will be scored as correct. The answers are assumed to apply within the United States unless otherwise noted.


1. The main point of an instrument approach is to find a runway in the mist and land. Imagine yourself on an ILS (Category I) instrument approach when the tower controller casually says, "Ceiling now 100 overcast, RVR [runway visual range] 1800 ..." Unfortunately, the published minimum RVR for this approach is 2400 feet. You're outside the FAF (Final Approach Fix) and the controller asks you to "Say intentions." You're operating under FAR Part 91 -- not for hire -- so you answer, "I'll continue the approach." Are you legal to continue the approach with the official reported visibility (RVR) now below minimums? Choose the best answer; not just a good answer, but the best answer.
a. Yes. Flight visibility, not reported visibility, rules in your case. Continue the approach.
b. No. Even though flight visibility rules, you must have the runway environment or approach lights in sight to continue the approach.
c. Yes, but only because you are outside the FAF when the new visibility report is issued.
d. No, because you are outside the FAF. If, however, you'd already passed the FAF you'd be legal to continue the approach.
e. Yes. In your case visibility is irrelevant for continuing the approach from this point.
2. You've always wanted a helicopter rating tacked onto your VFR private pilot certificate, so you hop into your Cessna 170 for a two-hour flight (based on forecast winds) to the Rotohead Helicopter School and Casino in Loveless, Nev. You don't have quite full tanks but have enough fuel to reach your intended destination with some reserve remaining. The sun will set one hour prior to your estimated time of arrival at your destination. The sky is clear, visibility unlimited. You must depart with enough fuel to reach your destination (a reasonable plan, donchya think?) plus a reserve to fly how long after that?
a. 20 minutes
b. 30 minutes
c. 45 minutes
d. 60 minutes
3. The ILS Runway 32 approach into Smilenfile, Ark., has a DA of 980 feet, which is 200 feet HAT. What do those acronyms DA and HAT mean?
a. DA (Decision Attitude); HAT (Height Above Touchdown)
b. DA (Decision Altitude); HAT (Height Above Touchdown)
c. DA (Decision Attitude); HAT (Height Above Terrain)
d. DA (Decision Altitude); HAT (Height Above Terrain)
4. You're under the hood, and sweat pours from your temples as the radar approach controller vectors you to the ILS final approach course for a practice approach. While pretending to identify the localizer's Morse Code, you vaguely recall a NOTAM pertaining to personnel working on or near a runway. Because the FAA can read your mind, the controller says, "Lancair Six One Zulu, trucks on runway, expect an altitude restricted low approach." Being cool, you say, "Roger." But how low can the tower controller let you descend on your so-called low approach?
a. 200 feet
b. 300 feet
c. 500 feet
d. As low as the tower controller thinks is safe, provided both the aircraft and surface vehicles are in sight and all personnel are informed of the operation.
e. As low as the PIC thinks is safe, provided both the aircraft and surface vehicles are in sight by the tower and all personnel are informed of the operation.
5. Besides radar vectoring, controllers can separate and sequence air traffic -- both IFR and VFR -- through use of speed control. But, they can't slow you to the edge of the stall speed. Without pilot concurrence, what is the lowest indicated airspeed in knots (KIAS) that ATC can assign to a departing turbine-powered aircraft (jet or turbo prop) and to a reciprocating engine aircraft?
a. 250 and 150, respectively
b. 230 and 150, respectively
c. 170 and 150, respectively
d. 170 and 130, respectively
6. Controllers aren't the only ones laboring with speed limits. Pilots need to know when to slow down, too. What is the maximum allowable indicated airspeed limit below 10,000 feet MSL? (Assuming you don't have a waiver from the Administrator to scream around at any speed in your T-38.)
a. 170 knots (196 mph)
b. 200 knots (230 mph)
c. 230 knots (265 mph)
d. 250 knots (288 mph)
7. Refer to the graphic below depicting Class B airspace near Minneapolis, Minn. Imagine you've just departed South St. Paul Fleming Field (SGS) in your P-51 Mustang (hey, that's what I'd imagine if it were my aviation fantasy) east of Minneapolis-St. Paul Intl. Airport (MSP). Fleming has no control tower but is squashed beneath the overhanging Class B airspace. Watching a stream of Northwest Airlines jets headed into the big airport, you decide to stay low, turn southeast away from the Class B surface area and away from the Class C airspace to the north in order to escape the airspace madness. How fast can you go while beneath the Class B shelf?
MSP Class B (157 Kb)
 
(Click graphic for larger version)

a. 180 knots (KIAS)
b. 200 knots (KIAS)
c. 230 knots (KIAS)
d. 250 knots (KIAS)

8. You've managed to elude the Class B clutches and want to cruise your single-engine, non-turbine, VFR airplane as low as you safely can across the sprawling suburban landscape. Your definition of "safely" and the FAA's interpretation may vary, but FAR 91.119 sets out limits of how low you can go: "Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement, or over any open-air assembly of persons, an altitude of ( _____ ) feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of ( _____ ) feet of the aircraft." Fill in those blanks.
a. 1000, 2000
b. 500, 1000
c. 500, 200
d. 1000, 500
e. As low as you like, provided, "... if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface."
9. So far it's been a great trip. You haven't busted anyone's airspace -- or at least no one's complained. You've kept your speed under control. And even though you turned a few heads over the last congested settlement with its open-air assembly of people, no one could read your N-number (thank goodness for those tiny three-inch numbers). Now you're settled into level cruising flight on a magnetic course of 179 degrees (VFR) at 2500 feet MSL. Wind is out of the southwest at 10 knots at your altitude. Ground elevation varies from 500 feet (obviously MSL) to 1000 feet. On this course, 2500 feet MSL VFR cruising altitude is illegal for direction of flight, as per FAR 91.159, and you must climb to at least 3500 feet MSL.
a. True
b. False
10. In order for altitude regulations to work, all aircraft in a given chunk of airspace must have their altimeters set to a common altimeter setting. Aircraft operating below 18,000 feet MSL must use an altimeter setting from a station (AFSS, AWOS, ASOS, ATC) along the route within 100 nautical miles of the aircraft's position. But what altimeter setting do aircraft use from 18,000 feet and above use?
a. 29.90" Hg
b. 29.92" He
c. 30.92" Hg
d. 29.92" Hg
e. ATC assigned altimeter, whatever it is, because this is inside Class A airspace.