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Brainteasers
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October 7, 2004

Brainteasers
Interactive Quiz #86:
Restrictions and Procedures

There are three reasons for getting the instrument rating: safer flying, lower insurance rates, and swaggering rights in the pilot's lounge. To retain the right to preen, you need to review a few IFR procedures.

INSTRUCTIONS: Answer the questions as best you can, then click on the "Score my quiz answers" button to see your score and read the explanations. If you don't like your score the first time around, you can change some of your answers and resubmit. To get the most out of this quiz, we suggest you keep trying until you get a perfect score.

NOTE: When more than one answer is true, only the most complete, correct answer will be scored as correct. The answers are assumed to apply within the United States unless otherwise noted.

1. After months of hooded agony working toward your instrument rating, you meet the examiner at Arsenic Wells Muni, Texas, an uncontrolled airport inside class G airspace. The examiner lights a cigar and hands you the U.S. Terminal Procedures book. She notes that Arsenic Wells is in the flatlands and has a published GPS approach but no published departure procedure (DP). The examiner wants to know: In order to miss obstacles --TV towers, oil derricks, big cowboy hats -- on departure, the FAA expects you to cross the departure end of the runway at least ( ___ ) feet above the departure end of runway elevation and climb to ( ___ ) feet above the departure end of runway elevation before making the initial turn in order to avoid those obstacles.
a. 35 feet, 400 feet
b. 45 feet, 500 feet
c. 100 feet, 500 feet
d. 400 feet, 1000 feet
2. Same checkride as above. The examiner now asks, "What is the standard IFR climb gradient if no gradient is specified in the DP or SID?" Thankful that you'd seen this very same question here on the Brainteaser, you quickly answer that a standard IFR climb gradient is ( ____ ) until reaching the minimum IFR altitude or required to level off by a crossing restriction.
a. 500 feet per minute
b. 200 feet per statute mile
c. 200 feet per nautical mile
d. 500 feet per minute per statute mile
3. The examiner is so impressed with your answers she says, "Let's see how you fly." You file IFR to neighboring Cactus Haven Airpark and after a dramatically long preflight you strap in, start the engine, and taxi out. At the end of the runway, you contact approach control on the RTR (Remote Transmitter/Receiver) and receive this IFR clearance: "Comanche Six One Two Two Papa, cleared to Cactus Haven Airpark via direct Blister VOR, direct, cross Blister at or above 3000, maintain 4000." You read it back, accept the altimeter setting, and change to CTAF to announce your departure. Airborne in the 106-degree heat, the foggles slip down your sweaty nose as you contact departure control. The controller says, "... radar contact, maintain 5000." The radar controller still expects you to comply with the original restriction to "... cross Blister at or above 3000 ..."
a. True
b. False
4. Years later, having published a best-selling book about your instrument experiences, you find yourself IFR in your Cessna 208 Caravan headed to Quicheview, Calif., to speak at the Pebble Beach Pilot's Association. Arriving over Monterey Bay from the northwest you break out of the clouds and report the airport in sight to Approach. Winds favor runway 28 so the controller says, "Cross the freeway at or above 3000, enter left downwind runway 28, cleared visual approach, contact tower 118.4." You see the freeway, plus all the noise-sensitive mansions west of the freeway. You call the tower and the controller says, "Cessna Niner Three Yankee, runway 28, cleared to land." The crossing restriction issued by Approach is no longer required.
a. True
b. False
5. A visual approach is an IFR clearance, and yet the IFR pilot is expected to remain clear of clouds and keep the airport or preceding aircraft in sight. In order for the radar approach controller to initiate a vector for a visual approach to an airport with weather reporting service, the reported visibility must be three miles or better and the ceiling must be at least ( ____ ). (Choose the best/most complete answer):
a. 1000 feet AGL
b. 500 feet above the MVA/MIA (minimum vectoring or IFR altitude)
c. Ceiling doesn't matter; visibility is the controlling factor.
d. 1500 feet AGL
6. The missed approach procedure for a visual approach can be found in the Jeppesen or NACO approach procedures under:
a. Alternate, indicated by a triangle A.
b. Terminal procedures, indicated by a large T.
c. Standard missed approach procedure briefing box.
d. Visual approaches have no missed approach procedure.
7. The phrase "contact approach" has two distinct meanings depending on its context. If you call, for instance, Lincoln Approach Control on the wrong frequency, the controller will politely direct you to the correct freq by saying, "Cherokee Four Bravo Tango, contact Approach on 124.45." In that case, it's used as an instruction. "Contact approach" can also be used as an IFR approach clearance: "Cherokee Four Bravo Tango, cleared contact approach." In its second meaning, the contact approach is an IFR clearance similar to a visual approach. It cannot be initiated by ATC and there must be a published instrument approach at the airport, and the airplane pilot (not helicopter) on the contact approach need not see the airport but must maintain what in-flight visibility?
a. 5 miles
b. 3 miles
c. 2 miles
d. 1 mile
8. For a contact approach, in lieu of a missed approach ATC may issue alternative instructions if, in the controller's judgment, weather conditions may make completion of the contact approach impracticable. This means that if the controller thinks that you're completely insane for wanting to try a contact approach down Death Canyon in a low scud with a mile vis, that controller should offer you a way out These so-called "alternative instructions" guarantee:
a. Terrain and obstacle clearance from 500 feet AGL to the Minimum IFR Altitude (MIA).
b. At least 1000 feet vertical separation from other known IFR traffic.
c. Terrain, obstacle, and traffic clearance.
d. Terrain, obstacle, and traffic clearance if pilot on the alternative instructions climbs at 500 feet per nautical mile.
e. Nothing, nothing, nothing.
9. You've become so successful with your book, "IFR Skies," that you buy a small jet and fly IFR to an airport located in the center of class B airspace. You report the runway and a landing Boeing 707 ahead -- owned by an even more successful aviation writer -- in sight, and the approach controller says, "Follow the 707, caution wake turbulence, cleared visual approach runway 28R." No other traffic conflicts. The weather is clear, with visibility 20 miles. It's daytime. What restriction, if any, applies? (Choose best answer)
a. Altitude is at your discretion.
b. Altitude must stay above the class B floor.
c. Altitude must be at least 1000 feet AGL until the outer marker.
d. You must remain at least four miles behind and 1000 feet above the 707 for wake turbulence.
10. VFR-only pilots -- and this includes the upcoming Sport Pilots -- need to know about IFR procedures because we all share the same airspace and, more importantly, VFR operators can use some of the IFR procedures mentioned in the previous questions. Which of the procedures below cannot be utilized by VFR-only pilots?
a. Published Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODP)
b. STARs (Standard Terminal Arrival Routes)
c. ILS (Instrument Landing System)
d. Visual approaches
e. STARs and visual approaches